Is Jesus Sinless In Quran & Bible?

 

InvestigateIslam claims that the Quran states Jesus (pbuh) is a sinless son while Muhammed (pbuh) is not.

 

He Quotes Quran Surah 19 verse 19. Here is the Yusef Ali translation

 

19:19 He said: "Nay, I am only a messenger from thy Lord, (to announce) to thee the gift of a holy son

 

Response

 

In his video investigateislam says that Because this verse says Jesus is ‘Holy’ This proves he is God and it proves that he is sinless. Investigateislam is a hypocrite. When it suits him he will rely on the translation to prove his point as he does in this video, but in other issues, he will ignore the translation and give his own translation of the original Arabic and he will claim the english translation is faulty.

 

The original Arabic says the following

 

قَالَ إِنَّمَا أَنَا رَسُولُ رَبِّكِ لِأَهَبَ لَكِ غُلَامًا زَكِيًّا

 

The adjective being used here is ‘Zakiyan’ This word DOES NOT MEAN HOLY, infact the Arabic word for holy is ‘Muqaddasa’. Christians in the middle east usually call the bible al-Kitab al-Muqaddas which literally means The Holy Book. So this word Holy was used nowhere to describe Jesus pbuh. Investigateislam ignorantly claims this term is only used for Jesus. This is untrue. In the same Surah (19) the quran describes John the Baptist with a similar term. He is called ‘zakatan’ which means purity. It is a more exaggerated form of Zakiyan’. This is in Surah 19:13, here is the word in Arabic, I highlighted in red for the readers.

 

وَحَنَانًا مِّن لَّدُنَّا وَزَكَاةً وَكَانَ تَقِيًّا

 

Jesus is not called Sinless or holy he is called pure, which is what Muslims believe All prophets are. If christians translate the word Zakiyan as meaning holy to prove Jesus is God then they will have to Admit John The baptist is God because in the same chapter he is refered to using the same term.

 

The Prophet Jesus infact did commit sins ACCORDING TO THE BIBLE i decided to just make a table summerising them, you will find all the refences and you can search them for yourself. The table is arranged so that you can see what type of Sin he commited, where the old testament says its a sin and where the Gospels Show jesus violating it. (please do no take offence)

 

Sin CatagoryTorah PerspectiveNew TestamentConclusion

Treatment Of

Parents

Exod 19:3, 20:12, 21:17   Mathew 10:34-37, 12:48 Jeus Broke Commandement By Dishonouring His Mother 
Treatment Of GentilesExod 22:20; Deut 10:19 Mark 7:27 Jeus Broke Law & Insulted A Gentile by calling her a Dog
Treatment of JewsLev 19:17-18 Mt 6:2,5, 23:13-33 Jesus Broke This Law Several times  
Accepting Satans Invitation 

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  Matthew 4:8  Jesus Accepted Satans Invitation and followed him (temporarily)
Adultry LawsLev 20:10; Deut 21:10-13  Matthew 5:27-28  Jesus Changed The Law On Adultry thus changing the Torah which is a sin (Deut 13:1 and 4:2)
 Burial LawsDuetormony 21:23 Matthew 8:21-22 Jesus Broke Burial Laws thus changing the Torah which is a sin (Deut 13:1 and 4:2)
Dietary lawsLeviticus 11  Mt 15:10-11,16-20 Jesus Changed dietry laws thus changing the Torah which is a sin (Deut 13:1 and 4:2) 
 Sabath Exod 20:8-11, 16:22-30 Mt 12:1-7  Jesus Violated This Commandement
Marriage & reproductionGenesis 1:28 All Four Gospels Jesus Broke this law because he did not Marry and have children

 

 

Jesus of the Bible asks God to forgive him of his sins (Luke 11:4). Baptism washes away sins (Acts 22:16) and Jesus was baptized (Luke 3:21), therefore Jesus must have sinned. Christians counter this by claiming that in Luke 11:4 he is just teaching people how to pray. The verse says 'And forgive us our sins; for we also forgive every one that is indebted to us. And lead us not into temptation; but deliver us from evil'

 

So he includes himself, if he was sinless he would have excluded himself and he also would have also said forgive your sins, and also why would He be teaching people how to pray if he is God in flesh? Why did he not say 'Pray To Me?' or 'Worship Me'?